- #1
magnifik
- 360
- 0
Is it possible to have an infinite value for the amplitude of a Fourier coefficient?
The signal is sin(w0t) from 0 to T/2. My resulting coefficient formula was
Fn = 2/[4pi(1-n)] + 2/[4pi(1+n)]
so for F1 i got infinity ... is this possible?
or is coefficient just wrong?
The signal is sin(w0t) from 0 to T/2. My resulting coefficient formula was
Fn = 2/[4pi(1-n)] + 2/[4pi(1+n)]
so for F1 i got infinity ... is this possible?
or is coefficient just wrong?