How Do Perfectly Inelastic Collisions Lead to Maximum Kinetic Energy Loss?

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Perfectly inelastic collisions occur when two objects stick together after colliding, resulting in a single final velocity. This type of collision leads to maximum kinetic energy loss because the total kinetic energy after the collision is less than the total kinetic energy before the collision. The discussion emphasizes the importance of choosing an appropriate frame of reference for calculations, although it can be done in any frame. Participants express confusion about the need for calculations and the relationship between momentum transfer and energy loss. Understanding these concepts is crucial for grasping the mechanics of perfectly inelastic collisions.
nothing123
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Is there a proof showing how perfectly inelastic collisions result in the maximum kinetic energy loss?

Thanks.
 
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nothing123 said:
Is there a proof showing how perfectly inelastic collisions result in the maximum kinetic energy loss?

Thanks.

Hi nothing123! :smile:

Well, "perfectly inelastic collision" means that the two final velocities are the same.

So we may as well chose that velocity as our frame of reference.

So the question for you to answer is: If two bodies are stationary, can any transfer of momentum between them (conserving momentum) decrease the energy? :smile:
 
Hi tiny-tim,

I'm not sure if I'm following exactly but are you suggesting that if there can be no more transfer of momentum between the objects in the system, it's at its lowest possible kinetic energy? What does the frame of reference have to do with it?

Thanks.
 
Hi nothing123! :smile:

We can use any frame of reference.

But it makes sense to choose whatever frame makes the calculation easier.

In this case, it seems to make sense to choose the frame of the final velocity.

But it will work in any frame!

Have a go! :smile:
 
Sorry, I'm not quite following...is there supposed to be a calculation that's made?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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