- #1
mark_gg
- 30
- 0
Why does one particular 'frame of reference' have fictitious forces (like inertia) whilst another one doesn't.
I understand the basics, but more interested in 'why' space seems to have magically chosen specific frame to be the 'non inertial frame'.
Could space be more absolute than we think it is?
Has any research been done in this problem, which is at odds with a truly relativistic space (although I'm not saying relativity is wrong)
Thank you.
I understand the basics, but more interested in 'why' space seems to have magically chosen specific frame to be the 'non inertial frame'.
Could space be more absolute than we think it is?
Has any research been done in this problem, which is at odds with a truly relativistic space (although I'm not saying relativity is wrong)
Thank you.