Is time really moving backwards?

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In summary, this book is about relativity and I'm not sure if accelerated motion is relativistic to spacetime.
  • #71
valenumr said:
I'll just go back to my original point. A physical body will only deviate from the geodesic if energy is applied. That's all I said. It's not a difficult concept.
To be fair, I may have claimed that it should be observable as to which body had energy applied to it due to the deviation, but the two are intertwined.
 
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  • #72
valenumr said:
To be fair, I may have claimed that it should be observable as to which body had energy applied to it due to the deviation, but the two are intertwined.
Bullet and gun. Pebble and blob of putty. The deviation from the geodesic may be either [kinetic] energy positive or [kinetic] energy negative.
 
  • #73
jbriggs444 said:
But it is still wrong.
Aaaaand were back to square one. If you want to throw out GR and fundamental laws of physics that transcend even that... Well..
 
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  • #74
valenumr said:
Aaaaand were back to square one. If you want to throw out GR and fundamental laws of physics that transcend even that... Well..
We could step back to Newtonian mechanics. Things are simpler there.
 
  • #75
valenumr said:
A physical body will only deviate from the geodesic if energy is applied. That's all I said. It's not a difficult concept.
It is not difficult but it is wrong. Uniform circular motion remains an obvious counterexample
 
  • #76
jbriggs444 said:
We could step back to Newtonian mechanics. Things are simpler there.

jbriggs444 said:
We could step back to Newtonian mechanics. Things are simpler there.
You do realize that "every action has an equal and opposite reaction" is still a fundamental tenet of physics, right?
 
  • #77
jbriggs444 said:
Bullet and gun. Pebble and blob of putty. The deviation from the geodesic may be either [kinetic] energy positive or [kinetic] energy negative.
Or neutral.
 
  • #78
Dale said:
It is not difficult but it is wrong. Uniform circular motion remains an obvious counterexample
I'm really going to need a better explanation, because uniform is a non-deviating path along the geodesic (only there is no such thing, but elliptical orbits).
 
  • #79
Dale said:
It is not difficult but it is wrong. Uniform circular motion remains an obvious counterexample
To flesh this out a bit, suppose that we have two billiard balls connected by a thread spinning around each other. They are in orbit about the Earth. Their center of mass traces out an approximate geodesic. The two balls individually are each subject to a force. They each deviate significantly from a geodesic path.

Ordinarily, we would not say that much energy transfer is taking place. In particular, in a frame of reference anchored to the center of mass, the energy transfer rate is exceedingly near zero.
 
  • #80
valenumr said:
Aaaaand were back to square one. If you want to throw out GR and fundamental laws of physics that transcend even that... Well..
Nobody is throwing out any laws of physics, we are simply addressing a misunderstanding on your part.

Do you have a bit of calculus background? Can I write simple differential equations and you will be able to follow?
 
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  • #81
jbriggs444 said:
To flesh this out a bit, we have two billiard balls connected by a thread spinning around each other. They are in orbit about the Earth. Their center of mass traces out an approximate geodesic. The two balls individually are each subject to a force. They each deviate significantly from a geodesic path.
Dale said:
Nobody is throwing out any laws of physics, we are simply addressing a misunderstanding on your part.

Do you have a bit of calculus background? Can I write simple differential equations and you will be able to follow?
Yes. It's been a while since I've exercised those skills, but I've had career experience in mathematical modelling, so it's been applied.
 
  • #82
Dale said:
Or neutral.
So you both claim that a fundamental principal of GR, an "observer" in "free fall" along a geodesic can deviate from that path without any external force applied? Ok.
 
  • #83
valenumr said:
You do realize that "every action has an equal and opposite reaction" is still a fundamental tenet of physics, right?

No, it is not fundamental, because it's not always true, especially in relativity. Consider two positive charges moving along perpendicular straigt lines. Consider magnetic forces that they act on each other. Those "action and reaction" forces are perpendicular, hence not opposite.
 
  • #84
valenumr said:
So you both claim that a fundamental principal of GR, an "observer" in "free fall" along a geodesic can deviate from that path without any external force applied? Ok.
No. Our claim is different. It is that an object may deviate from a geodesic path without a change in energy.

The proviso is that the frame of reference used to evaluate the energy change must not be one in which the object is initially at rest.

That then leads to the discussion of "what is a reference frame". One could also be drawn into a discussion of "what is energy in the context of General Relativity and is it conserved"?
 
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  • #85
weirdoguy said:
No, it is not fundamental, because it's not always true, especially in relativity. Consider two positive charges moving along perpendicular straigt lines. Consider magnetic forces that they act on each other. Those "action and reaction" forces are perpendicular, hence not opposite.
It is commentary on conservation of momentum and energy. I'm pretty most folks would agree that those are fundamental principles rooted in Newtons laws. Even qft still respects those laws of conservation.
 
  • #86
Ok, so first some definitions ##\vec p## is momentum and ##\vec F## is force. Force and momentum are related by ##\vec F = \frac{d}{dt}\vec p## so a force is a change in momentum. Note in particular that both force and momentum are vectors.

Now, energy is a scalar ##E## so it is impossible that ##\vec F = \frac{d}{dt}E## because the left hand side is a vector and the right hand side is a scalar. So we will define a new scalar ##P## called power such that ##P= \frac{d}{dt}E##.

What we would like to do is to determine ##P## in terms of ##\vec F##. Then ##\vec F## (a vector) will give us the change in ##\vec p## (a vector), and ##P## (a scalar) will give us the change in ##E## (a scalar).

The proof can be found elsewhere, here I will simply assert the result ##P=\vec F \cdot \vec v## where ##\vec v## is the velocity. This is a scalar, like it should be so ##\frac{d}{dt}E=\vec F \cdot \vec v##

Now, the part that specifically contradicts your assertion is that it is possible for ##\vec F \cdot \vec v =0## even if ##\vec F \ne 0##. This happens if ##\vec v## is perpendicular to ##\vec F## (as in the case of uniform circular motion) or if ##\vec v=0##. Hence a force can change momentum without changing energy.
 
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  • #87
jbriggs444 said:
No. Our claim is different. It is that an object may deviate from a geodesic path without a change in energy.

The proviso is that the frame of reference used to evaluate the energy change must not be one in which the object is initially at rest.

That then leads to the discussion of "what is a reference frame".
I've said previously that energy and momentum are observables dependent upon the observer wrt to the observed. But the fact of the matter is deviations from the geodesic can be distinguished by experiment, by all observers. This is acceleration.
 
  • #88
valenumr said:
I've said previously that energy and momentum are observables dependent upon the observer wrt to the observed. But the fact of the matter is deviations from the geodesic can be distinguished by experiment, by all observers. This is acceleration.
Proper acceleration is an invariant. Kinetic energy is not.
 
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  • #89
jbriggs444 said:
OK, fair enough.

Proper acceleration is an invariant. Kinetic energy is not.
See, now we are agreeing. I have said that energy and momentum can be disagreed among observers, but mass is invariant. But. BUT. Acceleration (deviation from the geodesic) is observable and measurable, thus it is possible to tell where energy has been applied. Do you want an illustrative example?
 
  • #90
valenumr said:
See, now we are agreeing. I have said that energy and momentum can be disagreed among observers, but mass is invariant. But. BUT. Acceleration (deviation from the geodesic) is observable and measurable, thus it is possible to tell where energy has been applied. Do you want an illustrative example?
Your claim is not correct in general. In particular, a claim that invariant acceleration means invariant energy transfer is suspect.

Note that there are certainly scenarios where one can find an energy invariant in spite of energy being frame-relative in general. For instance, the energy lost to friction when a bag of cement slides across the bed of a pick-up truck. Despite the kinetic energy of both bag and pick-up truck being frame-relative, the energy lost to friction is invariant. [As I recall, @Dale and I discussed this years ago and he had decided that this scenario led to something invariant even in the context of special relativity]

An illustrative example would be helpful to work out our disagreement, yes.
 
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  • #91
valenumr said:
It is commentary on conservation of momentum and energy.

But conservation of momentum is something more general than "every action has an equal and opposite reaction". In my scenario momentum is conserved (we need to consider momentum of the EM field itself) but Newton's third law is violated.
 
  • #92
jbriggs444 said:
Your claim is wrong in general. An illustrative example would be helpful to work out our disagreement, yes.
Imagine a starship that has rotating rings to generate artificial gravity (sci-fi channel stuff) with a central axis. Now, if apply energy or force or work or torque, whatever, to the axis to cause it to rotate WRT to the rings, it is totally possible to know that it is the axis that is rotating and not the rings. You can chose observers who assume the rings rotating WRT the axis or vise versa, but all would end up agreeing the axis was rotating. OTOH, if I applied a torque to the whole ship to really rotate the rings, the axis would not be rotating relative to anyone on the ship. But they would all agree that the ship was rotating due to artificial gravity. Rotating with respect to what? The local geodesic, because all exterior points or constantly moving perpendicular to it. But do you see where the energy was applied?
 
  • #93
valenumr said:
... if apply energy or force or work or torque, whatever, ...
Just decide which.
 
  • #94
weirdoguy said:
But conservation of momentum is something more general than "every action has an equal and opposite reaction". In my scenario momentum is conserved (we need to consider momentum of the EM field itself) but Newton's third law is violated.
The concepts of conservation are fully embodied in Newtons laws. They are not at all discounted in the SM, SR, or GR.
 
  • #95
valenumr said:
They are not at all discounted in the SM, SR, or GR.

Conservation laws are not, but "every action has an equal and opposite reaction" is and that is what I am saying.
 
  • #96
valenumr said:
I suppose we could imagine a really twisted space-time where a body is rotated by shear forces. But does that not still imply an energy transfer?
No. Godel spacetime is a counterexample: objects moving along "comoving" worldlines in this spacetime are moving along geodesics (every point of the object is in free fall), but they have nonzero vorticity, which means they are being "rotated" (not "shear", the shear is zero--the rotation is rigid), but their energy does not change.

You really, really, really need to stop insisting that your incorrect intuitions are valid. This thread has gone back and forth for several pages now simply because you refuse to consider the possibility that GR does not work the way you think it does.

valenumr said:
Imagine a starship that has rotating rings to generate artificial gravity (sci-fi channel stuff) with a central axis. Now, if apply energy or force or work or torque, whatever, to the axis to cause it to rotate WRT to the rings, it is totally possible to know that it is the axis that is rotating and not the rings.
Your scenario makes no sense. First you say the rings are rotating, then you say you can make the axis "rotate WRT to the rings" as if that makes the rings "not rotating". But that's nonsense; if you didn't do anything to the rings, the rings are still rotating.

Also, how would you make an axis rotate? By definition it's the axis, it can't rotate.

A simpler scenario would be starting with the starship not rotating at all (zero vorticity), and applying a torque to make it rotate (nonzero vorticity). This would indeed add some rotational kinetic energy to the starship. But it would do it by applying forces to the different parts of the starship that were parallel to the direction in which those parts of the starship move. Everyone else in this thread already agrees that in this case, energy will be transferred. What they are saying, that you are refusing to recognize, is that if a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, there is no energy transferred (momentum is transferred but energy is not).

For a simple example of a force that transfers zero energy, work out what happens to a charged particle in a magnetic field. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity (this is obvious from the Lorentz force formula), so the particle's energy does not change.

valenumr said:
The concepts of conservation are fully embodied in Newtons laws. They are not at all discounted in the SM, SR, or GR.
While this is correct, it does not mean what you think it means. Everyone else posting in response to you understands that there are still conservation laws in GR. Continuing to repeat this statement does not make the other things you are saying valid. They aren't.
 
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  • #97
PeterDonis said:
No. Godel spacetime is a counterexample: objects moving along "comoving" worldlines in this spacetime are moving along geodesics (every point of the object is in free fall), but they have nonzero vorticity, which means they are being "rotated" (not "shear", the shear is zero--the rotation is rigid), but their energy does not change.

You really, really, really need to stop insisting that your incorrect intuitions are valid. This thread has gone back and forth for several pages now simply because you refuse to consider the possibility that GR does not work the way you think it does.Your scenario makes no sense. First you say the rings are rotating, then you say you can make the axis "rotate WRT to the rings" as if that makes the rings "not rotating". But that's nonsense; if you didn't do anything to the rings, the rings are still rotating.

Also, how would you make an axis rotate? By definition it's the axis, it can't rotate.

A simpler scenario would be starting with the starship not rotating at all (zero vorticity), and applying a torque to make it rotate (nonzero vorticity). This would indeed add some rotational kinetic energy to the starship. But it would do it by applying forces to the different parts of the starship that were parallel to the direction in which those parts of the starship move. Everyone else in this thread already agrees that in this case, energy will be transferred. What they are saying, that you are refusing to recognize, is that if a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, there is no energy transferred (momentum is transferred but energy is not).

For a simple example of a force that transfers zero energy, work out what happens to a charged particle in a magnetic field. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity (this is obvious from the Lorentz force formula), so the particle's energy does not change.While this is correct, it does not mean what you think it means. Everyone else posting in response to you understands that there are still conservation laws in GR. Continuing to repeat this statement does not make the other things you are saying valid. They aren't.
If I understand your second point correctly, regarding inducing perpendicular spin to the velocity vector, it would induce a torque (say downward)? But this did get off the rails. I'm lost on the point how a body can deviate from a geodesic path without some form of energy transfer.
 
  • #98
valenumr said:
If I understand your second point correctly, regarding inducing perpendicular spin to the velocity vector, it would induce a torque (say downward)? But this did get off the rails. I'm lost on the point how a body can deviate from a geodesic path without some form of energy transfer.
Keep things simple. Go back to the case of two billiard balls connected by a thread, rotating about one another. Let us put them in a flat space-time. Let us adopt the frame of reference where their combined center of mass is stationary.

Neither ball follows a geodesic path. Where is the energy transfer?

Please do not quibble about a time-varying quadrupole moment and gravitational radiation.
Please do not quibble about how this pair of billiard balls came to exist with this state of motion.
 
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  • #99
PeterDonis said:
No. Godel spacetime is a counterexample: objects moving along "comoving" worldlines in this spacetime are moving along geodesics (every point of the object is in free fall), but they have nonzero vorticity, which means they are being "rotated" (not "shear", the shear is zero--the rotation is rigid), but their energy does not change.

You really, really, really need to stop insisting that your incorrect intuitions are valid. This thread has gone back and forth for several pages now simply because you refuse to consider the possibility that GR does not work the way you think it does.Your scenario makes no sense. First you say the rings are rotating, then you say you can make the axis "rotate WRT to the rings" as if that makes the rings "not rotating". But that's nonsense; if you didn't do anything to the rings, the rings are still rotating.

Also, how would you make an axis rotate? By definition it's the axis, it can't rotate.

A simpler scenario would be starting with the starship not rotating at all (zero vorticity), and applying a torque to make it rotate (nonzero vorticity). This would indeed add some rotational kinetic energy to the starship. But it would do it by applying forces to the different parts of the starship that were parallel to the direction in which those parts of the starship move. Everyone else in this thread already agrees that in this case, energy will be transferred. What they are saying, that you are refusing to recognize, is that if a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, there is no energy transferred (momentum is transferred but energy is not).

For a simple example of a force that transfers zero energy, work out what happens to a charged particle in a magnetic field. The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity (this is obvious from the Lorentz force formula), so the particle's energy does not change.While this is correct, it does not mean what you think it means. Everyone else posting in response to you understands that there are still conservation laws in GR. Continuing to repeat this statement does not make the other things you are saying valid. They aren't.
And re: axis... I suppose I could have said someone just spun a free floating pencil for the first case. Observers would agree as to what actually had angular momentum, No?
 
  • #100
valenumr said:
I'm lost on the point how a body can deviate from a geodesic path without some form of energy transfer.
If a force is applied perpendicular to velocity then there is a deviation from a geodesic without energy transfer. As I showed above
 
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  • #101
Dale said:
If a force is applied perpendicular to velocity then there is a deviation from a geodesic without energy transfer. As I showed above
I'm still working through it.
 
  • #102
Dale said:
If a force is applied perpendicular to velocity then there is a deviation from a geodesic without energy transfer. As I showed above
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
 
  • #103
valenumr said:
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
I am guessing here that taking one's foot off the accelerator, putting the vehicle in neutral and turning the steering wheel counts as an "energy input" in your book?
 
  • #104
valenumr said:
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
Did you not follow the explanation above? If so, perhaps start with pointing out the place where you first get confused. We can go from there.

valenumr said:
I'm still working through it.
I would recommend pausing until you can finish working through it.
 
  • #105
valenumr said:
I am still trying to reconcile how anything (macroscopic) can alter course without an energy input.
Maybe you are confusing energy with force?
 

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