Is work done against friction always negative?

AI Thread Summary
Work done against friction is often misunderstood due to the direction of forces involved. When calculating work using the formula W = F * cos(θ) * d, if friction acts opposite to movement, it results in negative work when θ is 180 degrees. However, if an additional force is applied in the same direction as movement, it can increase the total work done, even with friction present. The total work done is equal to the change in kinetic energy, factoring in both the work done against friction and the work done by any applied forces. Understanding the direction of forces and displacement is crucial for accurately applying the work formula.
jongro
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Since friction is in the opposite direction as the direction of movement, wouldn't you expect the work to be negative? When I put it in the work formula, W = F * cos(180O) * d
it comes out positive because F is negative and cos(180) is negative too.

This means that if I have another force pulling something across a surface, then it would do more work if there is friction.

I read somewhere that the work is equal to the change in kinetic energy between two points but I was working on some homework and I realized that the only way I could get the right answer is if I made is so that W = F * cos(0O) * d (instead of theta = 180) in the friction work formula; that way friction gives negative work and when I add the two it equals to the change of kinetic friction.

Is there anything wrong in my original reasoning that W = F * cos(180O) * d?
I'm generally confused about work, could someone explain to me how it works?
 
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in a case of no friction

total work done= change in kinetic energy


with friction

total work done= change in kinetic energy + work done against friction

or if you want

total work done= change in kinetic energy - work done by frictional force
 
If the kinetic energy of the body increases, the work is done on the body. If the kinetic energy decreases, the work is done by the body.
So you have to decide the direction of the net force and the displacement before using the formula.
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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