Perfectly Inelastic and initial kinetic energy

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In a perfectly inelastic collision between two objects, one of mass m moving at speed v collides with a stationary object of mass 2m. The final velocity of the combined mass after the collision is calculated to be v/3. The initial kinetic energy of the moving object is 1/2(m)v^2, while the final kinetic energy of the combined mass is 1/2(3m)(1/3v)^2, which simplifies to 1/9(m)v^2. This indicates that the fraction of O1's initial kinetic energy lost in the collision is 2/3. The calculations confirm that the energy loss is consistent with the principles of momentum and energy conservation in inelastic collisions.
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An object of mass m (O1) moving with speed v collides head-on with a target object of mass 2m (O2) initially at rest. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, what fraction of O1's initial kinetic energy is lost?



1/2(m1)v^2initial=1/2(m1+m2)v^2final

m1v1=(m+2m)v2

v2=1/3(v1)

so...

1/2(m1)v^2=1/2(m1+m2)(1/3*v)^2 ... is this right so far?
 
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Take the ratio of the final kinetic energy to the initial kinetic energy. These two are not equal to each other unless you include a ratio factor on the left side of the equation.
 
1/3? 3m*(1/9)v^2 yields a factor of 1/3.
 
Correct.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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