Reaching the Speed of Light: A Thought Experiment on Halving Distance Traveled

In summary: I'm me and I'm here with a question. What I'm not sure about is whether you are giving me answer or simply telling me my question is stupid.
  • #36
ShaunM said:
I still don't understand why that makes 1m
You start with 1m. You subdivide it into more and more, smaller and smaller pieces. But you never add to or abstract from it, so it remains 1m:

1 =
1/2 + 1/2 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/16 =
...

The sum doesn't change in those steps, so no matter how often you repeat it, it is still 1.
This way to write it also avoids the issue mentioned by @jbriggs444.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes Merlin3189, sysprog and jbriggs444
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #37
I think this point is critical:
PeroK said:
It's a simple mathematical fact that the finite sums above never reaches the value ##1##. But, that makes it a poor model for the passage of time. And, it certainly doesn't compel time to behave according to Zeno's model.
Zeno did the math wrong, but even if you do the math right, it is still a poor way to describe motion. It's the model that's wrong, not reality.

Specifically:
If you graph time over displacement of a constant walking speed with a zero in the middle instead of at the end, you get a simple sloped line.

if you graph the number of samples over distance you get a hyperbole with a discontinuity where the model breaks.
 
  • Like
Likes sysprog
  • #38
ShaunM said:
I still don't understand why that makes 1m as that would mean, as stated in the video, this infinite sequence has an end which seems to my untrained self to be a contradiction:)
The sequence is bounded. [There is a single fixed value such that every sequence element is less than or equal to that value]

The sequence has no last term. [For every element in the sequence, there is another element with a larger value]

The two are not contradictory.
 
  • Like
Likes sysprog
  • #39
PeroK said:
This post completely resolves Zeno’s paradox, and it does so on Zeno’s own terms without avoiding the issue raised by Zeno

Not this particular one. You still have to add an infinite number of terms to get the final finite sum. Thus requiring an infinite number of steps to get there.

This assumes that steps can be made as small as you like while still maintaining a known velocity. That assumption is false because it requires a violation of the HUP.
 
  • Skeptical
Likes weirdoguy
  • #40
Mister T said:
This assumes that steps can be made as small as you like while still maintaining a known velocity. That assumption is false because it requires a violation of the HUP.
The problem gets worse if you don't intend to stop walking when you cross the goal line. The function is discontinuous at 0.
 
  • Like
Likes sysprog
  • #41
Zeno's model vs the normal model, in graphical form:

Zeno.jpg


I think the problem gets clearer if you arbitrarily move the "0" displacement.
 
  • Like
Likes sysprog
  • #42
Mister T said:
Not this particular one. You still have to add an infinite number of terms to get the final finite sum. Thus requiring an infinite number of steps to get there.

This assumes that steps can be made as small as you like while still maintaining a known velocity. That assumption is false because it requires a violation of the HUP.

I don't remember saying that!

It was actually @Dale who said that.

You need to take a course in real analysis.

The HUP is not relevant to Zeno's argument. QM shows that the naive analysis of motion, ultimately for small enough particles, doesn't apply. It's actually the expected values of measurements that behave classically.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes weirdoguy and phinds
  • #43
A.T. said:
You start with 1m. You subdivide it into more and more, smaller and smaller pieces. But you never add to or abstract from it, so it remains 1m:

1 =
1/2 + 1/2 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/16 =
...

The sum doesn't change in those steps, so no matter how often you repeat it, it is still 1.
This way to write it also avoids the issue mentioned by @jbriggs444.

Thanks. To my (admittedly untrained) eye that's hard to understand. Working backwards from 1m to 0 in this way seems to to me to lead to the exact same problem. Theres always one discrete part of 1 missing.

Im actually quite comfortable with the thought that 1 is never reached as it seems to object isn't actually trying to get there anyway.
 
  • #44
A.T. said:
1 =
1/2 + 1/2 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/16 =
...
ShaunM said:
Theres always one discrete part of 1 missing.
How much is missing in which line?
ShaunM said:
Im actually quite comfortable with the thought that 1 is never reached
You shouldn't be, because it's nonsense.
 
  • Like
Likes PeroK
  • #45
ShaunM said:
Im actually quite comfortable with the thought that 1 is never reached as it seems to object isn't actually trying to get there anyway.

Given this is a physics forum and not a new age philosophy forum, I'm going to quote Richard Feynman:

If your theory doesn't agree with experiment, then it doesn't matter what your name is or how clever you are, it's wrong.
 
  • Like
Likes russ_watters, jim mcnamara and phinds
  • #46
PeroK said:
Given this is a physics forum and not a new age philosophy forum, I'm going to quote Richard Feynman:

If your theory doesn't agree with experiment, then it doesn't matter what your name is or how clever you are, it's wrong.

Quite right. I am having problems however understanding how 1 is reached. I appreciate you all trying to explain.
 
  • #47
A.T. said:
How much is missing in which line?

You shouldn't be, because it's nonsense.
The lines don't seem to me to be what we are talking about, sorry if I am not getting something.

Ive never studied math or physics outside of school but I do think about these things and some things I stumble across bother and interest me. To quote Manuel however, 'I know nothing'.

I know its nonsense simply from my own experience but 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8... doesn't seem to me to ever reach 1 either.
 
  • #48
It seems my understanding of math is not sufficient to allow me to understand how 1 is ever reached but thanks anyway to all of you, I really appreciate your time. Its enough for me to know that people with more knowledge can assure me that 1 is reached. The fact that this conclusion is also visible in my real experiences is a bonus:)
 
  • #49
ShaunM said:
The lines don't seem to me to be what we are talking about, sorry if I am not getting something.
I'm talking about this:

A.T. said:
1 =
1/2 + 1/2 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/4 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 =
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/16 =
...
Do you see that each line sums up to 1? Do you see that repeating the subdivision infinitely many times won't change that?
 
  • #50
ShaunM said:
Thanks. To my (admittedly untrained) eye that's hard to understand.
He's generating each line by copying the line above but with the last term replaced by two halves of it. The sum is one, and it never stops being one no matter how many times you split the last term.

Think of actually doing it - start with a 1m ruler and cut it in half. The total length is still 1m. Cut one half in half (two quarter-meters). The total length is still 1m. Cut one of the quarter meters into two eighth meters. The total length is still 1m. That's all @A.T. is doing, just stated algebraically. The point is that no step in this process ever changes the length of the ruler - the total length is always 1m. That's a (rather boring) pattern that won't change no matter how many times you keep subdividing the last piece.

In practice, with a real ruler, it will of course end when you get to the atomic scale. But you only know this because we've done experiments and we know that matter is made of atoms - extra knowledge you bring to the problem. If you don't know about atoms, you can propose just keeping dividing the ruler into smaller and smaller segments forever, and the total length stays 1m.

So the only problem with dividing a ruler into infinitely many pieces is that we know a ruler is actually made of a finite number of pieces. We don't know that about space itself, though, so there might be absolutely no problem about thinking about subdividing it infinitely many times.

The other problem you have, I think, is that you are thinking that you have divided the task of moving from A to B into infinitely many subtasks, so it can't be completed. But you've forgotten to think about how much time each subtask takes. Assuming that the object is moving at constant speed (which is why I asked a couple of pages ago), the amount of time each step takes is half the previous one. Just like with the ruler, simply dividing the amount of time up infinitely many times isn't a problem in principle. It may turn out to be one in practice, but we have no evidence of that, and your argument doesn't provide one.

The fundamental problem is that you are trying to impose discrete thinking onto an example that can be well explained by continuous variables. If time and space are continuous (which is a reasonable assumption as far as we are aware) then you can continue subdividing them infinitely, and the total distance and time remain unchanged. If your objection to that is "there must be a first step in moving" then the only answer we can give you is "sorry, you're wrong" and ask you exactly when you think the "keep on subdividing" will suddenly stop adding to one, or when a further subdivision is impossible - and you cannot answer that. It feels strange, I agree, but it's perfectly self-consistent.
 
  • Like
Likes sysprog, phinds and ShaunM
  • #51
A.T. said:
I'm talking about this:Do you see that each line sums up to 1? Do you see that repeating the subdivision infinitely many times won't change that?

I obviously see that each line sums up to 1. I don't see where you are getting the second 'half' from each time you reduce. This is the missing half we are talking about and there it is each time. It seems to me this is being magicked out of thin air but I understand I don't know enough to comprehend why this isn't so.
 
  • #52
ShaunM said:
I obviously see that each line sums up to 1. I don't see where you are getting the second 'half' from each time you reduce. This is the missing half we are talking about and there it is each time. It seems to me this is being magicked out of thin air but I understand I don't know enough to comprehend why this isn't so.
See the first two paragraphs of my last post.
 
  • #53
Ibix said:
He's generating each...

Thanks for this reply.

I do know about atoms and I understand fully what you are saying about the ruler, no matter how small its cut up, is still the length it always was. What I don't think it will ever be however is no ruler. No matter how many times its cup up you would never reach 0.

"sorry, you're wrong"

I really like this answer and I mean that sincerely:) I assume I am wrong I am just trying to understand why.
 
  • #54
ShaunM said:
I understand fully what you are saying about the ruler, no matter how small its cut up, is still the length it always was.
Then the time to travel along will also be always be the same.

ShaunM said:
What I don't think it will ever be however is no ruler. No matter how many times its cup up you would never reach 0.
The point was to reach the end in finite time, not in zero time.
 
  • #55
Ibix said:
In practice, with a real ruler, it will of course end when you get to the atomic scale.
And before. As a carpenter you learn not to ignore the width of the kerf.
 
  • Like
Likes Ibix
  • #56
A.T. said:
Then the time to travel along will also be always be the same.The point was to reach the end in finite time, not in zero time.

I think the way I am seeing it is that trying to reach 1 on the way 'up' is the same as trying to reach '0' on the way down. Is this not so?
 
  • #57
ShaunM said:
I think the way I am seeing it is that trying to reach 1 on the way 'up' is the same as trying to reach '0' on the way down. Is this not so?
Either way you have to pass by an uncountable infinity of points to get there. Passing a countable subset is a trivial matter.
 
  • Like
Likes sysprog
  • #58
ShaunM said:
Im actually quite comfortable with the thought that 1 is never reached as it seems to object isn't actually trying to get there anyway.
See my graphs in post #41 (the first two in particular): there is zero difference in the motion when described using Zeno's logic, it just presents slightly differently as an uneven spacing of points on the graph. The object gets to the goal just as surely as you have no trouble walking across a room.

What would cause the object never to reach the goal is if each step took equal time. Then it would be obvious that the total time would be infinite.
 
  • #59
russ_watters said:
What would cause the object never to reach the goal is if each step took equal time. Then it would be obvious that the total time would be infinite.

Right, because the number of steps is infinite.
 
  • #60
Mister T said:
Right, because the number of steps is infinite.
There is no actual need to bring Infinity (which is yet another of those concepts that make people uneasy) into it explicitly if you just do what the introduction to differential calculus does when it describes velocity as the limit of δx/δt as δt approaches zero. The concept of Limits is not too intuitive but it is a good way into a lot of these sort of problems.
That Zeno has done us no favours over the years,
 
  • Like
Likes PeroK
  • #61
ShaunM said:
Quite right. I am having problems however understanding how 1 is reached. I appreciate you all trying to explain.
This is largely irrelevant to Zeno's paradox. Either it never reaches 1, in which case not even 1s can pass; or, in some sense it eventually reaches 1 in which case the universe lasts at most 1s.

Mathematically the finite sums never reach 1. But, we would like to identify 1 somehow as the limit of that sequence of sums. This can be done using the rigorous mathematics called real analysis, developed in the 19th century.

These infinite sums are extremely useful in physics but don't necessarily map to physical processes.

The real issue with Zeno's paradox, IMO, is that there is no reason to decompose time into smaller and smaller increments. It serves no purpose. Also, the conclusion is inherent in the approach. By only considering smaller and smaller increments, you can never consider any phenomena that take place outside that first second.
 
  • Like
Likes sophiecentaur and russ_watters
  • #62
sophiecentaur said:
That Zeno has done us no favours
What about giving calculus a day to save?
 
  • #63
PeroK said:
, IMO, is that there is no reason to decompose time into smaller and smaller increments. It serves no purpose.
The 'paradox' only goes half way with it so it falls over. Once Calculus, with its LIMITS, came along, it dealt with that problem and many others.
Perhaps Zeno and his paradox were just an early example of a Conspiracy Theory. Find an awkward question and then blame someone / something for it. Rationality is / was never very popular.
Edit: The function is actually not differentiable at the instant of impact, if you use a simple mathematical model. There will be a 'damped harmonic' type of motion as the ball and the wall collide. The actual time that the ball stops can be well defined that way - and the velocity approaches zero in a nice well behaved fashion. But Zeno can still muck about with the time of impact.
 
Last edited:
  • #64
The formulations that I've seen of Zeno's Paradox all begin with something like: before you can traverse the stated distance, you have to traverse half of it, and then you have to traverse half of the remainder, etc.. My reaction to that is that if that's so, you have to traverse the first half of the first half before you can traverse the second half of the first half, and before you can do that, you have to traverse the first half of the first half of the first half, etc., wherefore you could never even get started. This of course contradicts the postulate that you have a velocity, i.e., that you are in fact moving, with a speed. and in a direction, and so abuses the facts that all motions over finite distances may be described as inclusive of traversal of an infinite number of infinitesimal distances, and that all durations may be described as comprising an infinite number of infinitesimal moments or instants.
 
Last edited:
  • #65
I apologize that I haven't read all three pages of responses yet @ShaunM . In what context was this question posed to you? Is it possible that it was posed as a thought experiment? Another thing to think about - did they tell you that points A and B are fixed? What happens if B is also moving? Just thought I'd throw something out there to consider. :smile:
 

Similar threads

Replies
14
Views
1K
Replies
17
Views
766
Replies
2
Views
863
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
9
Views
1K
Replies
9
Views
1K
Back
Top