- #36
Nereid
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Gold Member
- 3,401
- 3
These are, of course, very good questions.Originally posted by hitssquad
Then we are left with the questions of why:
1. within the United States, heritability of IQ has been found to be high.
2. children rescued from adversity, both moderate and severe, tend to fall into a normal distribution of IQs.
http://www.google.com/search?q="children+rescued+from+adversity"
3. Chinese have high IQs despite China's poor environment (Chinese heat their homes with coal buring inside the home; much of the population lacks an education, viz literacy is only at 86%).
4. wealthy, urbanized oil and resort nations have low IQs.
However, the second two require us to first have to hand good data on the IQs of many, many groups of people in many countries. Such data may exist; however, it's not to be found in Lynn and Vanhanen's " Intelligence and the Wealth and Poverty of Nations".
Let's do some toy research anyway. Let's take L+V's "National IQ" for rich North American (Canada, US), European (Belgium, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Italy, Netherlands, Portugal, Spain, Switzerland, UK), and Asia-Pacific economies (Australia, Hong Kong, Japan, New Zealand, Singapore). I've already established, using L+V's reported data, that there's no correlation between National IQ and 1998 real per capita GDP ('wealth' for shorthand).
What about wealth and urbanisation? No correlation.
How about National IQ and urbanisation?
~57% correlation!
Of course, this is toy research, and almost all the correlation is accounted for by two data points - Ireland (IQ 87, urbanisation 6) and Portugal (91, 5.8); Finland (the other low urbanisation nation (also 6) has the same IQ as the US (98), is the outlier (must be all those Lapps ... oops! Lapps are closest to SE Indians genetically, and nearest Indians on the PC plane ... and they have IQs of ... er, oh dear)