- #36
my_wan
- 868
- 3
bahamagreen,
I can sympathize with your difficulty on the hotel paradox. I have tried thinking through possible ways of getting around it. All of which involve refining definitions more than the paradox makes explicit. I'll try to construct a version of your argument that is harder to deconstruct. Though I will not offer any proof either. Neither does it reject infinities.
For instance, if you compare the statements:
(1) Hilbert's hotel contains an infinite number of rooms in which each room contains an occupant.
(2) Hilbert's hotel contains an infinite number of rooms and occupied by an infinite number of guest, for which the cardinal numbers are equal.
The hotel paradox essentially assumes these statements are equivalent. I suspect that this is not fully justified. There is only one countably infinite cardinal, [itex]\aleph_0[/itex], but there are uncountably many countably infinite ordinals ω. By definition in statement (1) we have assigned a one to one correspondence between the number of occupants and the number of rooms. Thus the one to one correspondence is in reference to ordinals rather than cardinals.
Now the equivalence of the above 2 statements is predicated on the fact that ω + 1 = ω, i.e., addition and multiplication are not commutative. Seems straightforward enough, just as 0*1=0 and 1 + 0 = 1. However, if we look to calculus, 0 may not equal 0, but rather an infinitesimal ΔL, the inverse of an infinity. In calculus we must make use of these limits specifically to avoid these self same ordinal properties we associate with 0, and inversely infinity. If calculus requires us to avoid this property with respect to zero, why is 1/ΔL special? ΔL simply has the equivalence class of 0, wrt a finite interval.
This wouldn't change much mathematically in operational terms, but would allow us to make a distinction between statements (1) and (2). In both ΔL and 1/ΔL the only thing that changes is the ordinal, not the cardinal. This would dictate that if the ordinal by definition has a one to one correspondence then there simply is no room to add another guest, though the cardinal remains the same up to [itex]\aleph_1[/itex].
We can also still accommodate more guest, when ω_1 = ω_2, under the condition that switching rooms requires some finite time interval, or a time interval with a cardinal number less than the cardinal number of guest.
Can anybody destruct that argument? It would be interesting to try and prove also.
I can sympathize with your difficulty on the hotel paradox. I have tried thinking through possible ways of getting around it. All of which involve refining definitions more than the paradox makes explicit. I'll try to construct a version of your argument that is harder to deconstruct. Though I will not offer any proof either. Neither does it reject infinities.
For instance, if you compare the statements:
(1) Hilbert's hotel contains an infinite number of rooms in which each room contains an occupant.
(2) Hilbert's hotel contains an infinite number of rooms and occupied by an infinite number of guest, for which the cardinal numbers are equal.
The hotel paradox essentially assumes these statements are equivalent. I suspect that this is not fully justified. There is only one countably infinite cardinal, [itex]\aleph_0[/itex], but there are uncountably many countably infinite ordinals ω. By definition in statement (1) we have assigned a one to one correspondence between the number of occupants and the number of rooms. Thus the one to one correspondence is in reference to ordinals rather than cardinals.
Now the equivalence of the above 2 statements is predicated on the fact that ω + 1 = ω, i.e., addition and multiplication are not commutative. Seems straightforward enough, just as 0*1=0 and 1 + 0 = 1. However, if we look to calculus, 0 may not equal 0, but rather an infinitesimal ΔL, the inverse of an infinity. In calculus we must make use of these limits specifically to avoid these self same ordinal properties we associate with 0, and inversely infinity. If calculus requires us to avoid this property with respect to zero, why is 1/ΔL special? ΔL simply has the equivalence class of 0, wrt a finite interval.
This wouldn't change much mathematically in operational terms, but would allow us to make a distinction between statements (1) and (2). In both ΔL and 1/ΔL the only thing that changes is the ordinal, not the cardinal. This would dictate that if the ordinal by definition has a one to one correspondence then there simply is no room to add another guest, though the cardinal remains the same up to [itex]\aleph_1[/itex].
We can also still accommodate more guest, when ω_1 = ω_2, under the condition that switching rooms requires some finite time interval, or a time interval with a cardinal number less than the cardinal number of guest.
Can anybody destruct that argument? It would be interesting to try and prove also.