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Let ## A(\lambda)=\int\limits_{0}^{\lambda} \Phi(\lambda ') \, d \lambda ' ##, then ## \frac{d A(\lambda)}{d \lambda}=\Phi(\lambda) ##. ## \frac{d A(\lambda)}{d \lambda } ## is of course the slope of ## A(\lambda) ## vs. ## \lambda ## at any point. In spectroscopy, (unlike probability theory where the integral (area under the curve) of the Gaussian distribution is often tabulated), the function ## A(\lambda ) ## simply isn't in widespread use. Editing: I should qualify the last statement: Many times the integration of ## \Phi(\lambda) ## is performed between two wavelengths to get ## P=\int\limits_{\lambda_1}^{\lambda_2} \Phi(\lambda) \, d \lambda ##, but this is done without ever tabulating ## A(\lambda) ##. The power ## P=A(\lambda_2)-A(\lambda_1) ##, but ## \Phi(\lambda) ## is normally tabulated, and I think I can say I have never seen a table of the function ## A(\lambda) ## in any spectroscopic publication. Mathematically, it could be done this way, but it simply isn't.JohnnyGui said:I think I have found an alternative way to show why ##\Phi(\lambda)## is not the slope of a spectrum curve, although I'm not sure it's the correct way to explain this. Consider the following spectrum curve that shows many watts each wavelength is emitted from a source.
View attachment 205862
Say I'd want to calculate the energy from the left side of this curve, starting from 400nm, up to the peak wavelength (around 560 nm) that is emitted at 680 Watt as shown.
If ##\Phi(\lambda)## is the slope (i.e. derivative) of this curve in Watts/nm, then integrating ##\Phi(\lambda)## would only give the difference in Watts between 400 nm and 560nm, which is 680 Watts. Correct?
So, this means that ##\Phi(\lambda)## must be the function of the curve itself since integrating the function of the curve itself would give the area beneath it.
Is this reasoning correct?
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